HP TGT Non medical commission 2025 answer key
Based on the uploaded question paper (TGT 2020), here are the Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 01 to 50 with their correct answers.
Note: The answers provided are based on standard General Knowledge, Educational Psychology, and Subject Matter expertise, as the official answer key is not included in the file.
Pedagogy & Psychology
1. The educator, who promoted the idea of five formal steps in learning, was: 1
- (A) Herbart
- (B) Pestalozzi
- (C) Comenius
- (D) Rousseau
Answer: (A) Herbart (These are known as the Herbartian steps).
2. Which quality of the teacher is liked the most by his students? 2
- (A) His command
- (B) His love for discipline
- (C) His punctuality
- (D) His impartial attitude
Answer: (D) His impartial attitude
3. Orthopedically impaired children are likely to have: 3
- (A) dyslexia
- (B) dysthymia
- (C) dysgraphia
- (D) dyscalculia
Answer: (C) dysgraphia (While primarily a learning disability, it is directly related to fine motor skills and writing mechanics, often overlapping with motor impairments in this context).
4. The concept of Intelligence Quotient (IQ) was proposed by which psychologist? 4
- (A) Binet and Terman
- (B) Goleman
- (C) Sternberg
- (D) William Stern
Answer: (D) William Stern (He coined the term “IQ”).
5. Secondary Education Commission (1952-53) recommended which pattern of education? 5
- (A) $10+2+3$ scheme
- (B) $12+3$ scheme
- (C) $11+2+3$ scheme
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (The Mudaliar Commission [1952-53] recommended the Higher Secondary System consisting of 11 years of schooling followed by a 3-year degree. The 10+2+3 system was recommended by the Kothari Commission in 1964).
General Knowledge (Himachal Pradesh)
6. As per Census 2011, which district has highest decadal growth rate in H.P.? 6
- (A) Hamirpur
- (B) Kangra
- (C) Mandi
- (D) Una
Answer: (D) Una
7. Which district headquarters is located at the lowest altitude in H.P.? 7
- (A) Bilaspur
- (B) Kullu
- (C) Hamirpur
- (D) Chamba
Answer: (A) Bilaspur (Bilaspur New Township is approx 670m; Hamirpur is approx 785m).
8. Indrasan mountain peak is located in which district of H.P.? 8
- (A) Lahaul-Spiti
- (B) Kinnaur
- (C) Kullu
- (D) Sirmour
Answer: (C) Kullu
9. Laluni jot is located in which district of H.P.? 9
- (A) Shimla
- (B) Solan
- (C) Chamba
- (D) Lahaul-Spiti
Answer: (D) Lahaul-Spiti
10. Kalika Kund water spring is located in which district of H.P.? 10
- (A) Chamba
- (B) Kullu
- (C) Mandi
- (D) Kangra
Answer: (A) Chamba
11. In which year Guru Gobind Singh visited Mandi? 111111111111111111
- (A) 1685
- (B) 1697
- (C) 1711
- (D) 1724
Answer: (B) 1697
12. Which movement took place in Bilaspur? 12121212121212121212121212121212
- (A) Jhugga
- (B) Dhami
- (C) Pajhota
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) Jhugga
13. The old name of Nalagarh was: 13
- (A) Baned
- (B) Suket
- (C) Mahasu
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (The old name was Hindur).
14. Which of the following received the National Award for Master Craftsman in 1965? 14
- (A) Geeta Devi
- (B) Seema Devi
- (C) Maheshi Devi
- (D) Reena Devi
Answer: (C) Maheshi Devi (For Chamba Rumal embroidery).
15. Dicky Dolma belongs to which district of H.P.? 15
- (A) Shimla
- (B) Kinnaur
- (C) Kullu
- (D) Mandi
Answer: (C) Kullu (She was the youngest woman to summit Mt. Everest at the time).
16. Who was the first Judicial Commissioner of H.P.? 16161616
- (A) M.H. Beg
- (B) T.V.R. Tatachari
- (C) H.S. Thakur
- (D) J.N. Banerjee
Answer: (D) J.N. Banerjee
17. Total number of assembly constituencies in Mandi district is: 17
- (A) 5
- (B) 8
- (C) 15
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (The correct answer is 10).
18. State Agricultural Management Extension Training Institute (SAMETI) is located at which place in H.P.? 18
- (A) Palampur
- (B) Nauni
- (C) Mashobra
- (D) Sundernagar
Answer: (C) Mashobra
19. The Kol Dam Hydropower plant is built across which river? 19
- (A) Satluj
- (B) Beas
- (C) Chenab
- (D) Ravi
Answer: (A) Satluj
20. Burah dance is performed in which district of H.P.? 20
- (A) Sirmour
- (B) Shimla
- (C) Chamba
- (D) Lahaul-Spiti
Answer: (A) Sirmour
Reasoning & Current Affairs (2020 Context)
21. In a certain code ‘453’ means ‘pens are new’, ‘362’ means ‘boys are young’, ‘598’ means ‘buy new clothes’ then which of the following number is used for ‘pen’? 21
- (A) 3
- (B) 4
- (C) 5
- (D) 9
Answer: (B) 4
Logic: ‘New’ is common in 1st and 3rd sentences, so is ‘5’. ‘Are’ is common in 1st and 2nd, so is ‘3’. ‘Pen’ is left in the 1st sentence with ‘4’.
22. In the following number series how many 8’s are there which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 3? 22222222
Series: 583385585458385838588538583
- (A) 2
- (B) 3
- (C) 4
- (D) 5
Answer: (A) 2 (Matches are: …585… and …588…).
23. In a class of 45 students, among these students who passed Anmol secured 11th position from upwards and 15th position from downwards. How many students failed? 23
- (A) 15
- (B) 18
- (C) 20
- (D) 21
Answer: (C) 20
Logic: Students passed = 11 + 15 – 1 = 25. Failed = Total (45) – Passed (25) = 20.
24. Anil is heavier than Anand but not as much as Lalu. Anand is heavier than Vijay. Raman is heavier than Anil, but lighter than Shyam. Who is the lightest? 24
- (A) Vijay
- (B) Lalu
- (C) Anand
- (D) Anil
Answer: (A) Vijay
25. Complete the series: HMT, IPR, JSP, KVN, ? 25252525
- (A) LXK
- (B) KXM
- (C) KYL
- (D) LYL
Answer: (D) LYL
26. Which space agency is set to send astronauts to the International space station for the first time in May 2020? 26
- (A) NASA
- (B) ISRO
- (C) SpaceX
- (D) European Space Agency
Answer: (C) SpaceX (This refers to the Crew Dragon Demo-2 mission).
27. Which technological firm along with NASSCOM Foundation recently launched the ‘Innovate for Accessible India’ campaign? 27
- (A) Apple
- (B) Amazon
- (C) Microsoft
- (D) Google
Answer: (C) Microsoft
28. World Cities Summit, hosted recently by which country? 28
- (A) U.K.
- (B) Japan
- (C) Singapore
- (D) U.A.E.
Answer: (C) Singapore
29. Which former Chief Justice of India has recently been nominated to Rajya Sabha? 29
- (A) Dipak Misra
- (B) T.S. Thakur
- (C) Jagdish Singh Khehar
- (D) Ranjan Gogoi
Answer: (D) Ranjan Gogoi
30. Patil Puttappa, who recently passed away was associated with which field? 30
- (A) Sports
- (B) Journalism
- (C) Business
- (D) Research
Answer: (B) Journalism
General Knowledge (History & Geography)
31. The Dasarajna War was fought on the banks of which river? 31
- (A) Ravi
- (B) Satluj
- (C) Beas
- (D) Indus
Answer: (A) Ravi (Ancient name Parushni).
32. The first Buddhist Council was patronized by which ruler? 32323232
- (A) Ashoka
- (B) Kanishka
- (C) Kalasoka
- (D) Ajatashatru
Answer: (D) Ajatashatru
33. Ibn-Battuta, a famous traveller belonged to which country? 33
- (A) Portugal
- (B) Italy
- (C) Germany
- (D) Morocco
Answer: (D) Morocco
34. Battle of Chausa took place between: 34
- (A) Sher Shah and Humayun
- (B) Ibrahim Lodhi and Babar
- (C) Akbar and Hemu
- (D) Ahmed Shah Abdali and Marathas
Answer: (A) Sher Shah and Humayun
35. Who started Atmiya Sabha? 35
- (A) Rammohan Roy
- (B) Dayanand Saraswati
- (C) Sridharalu Naidu
- (D) D. Pandurang
Answer: (A) Rammohan Roy
36. Norwester is the local wind of which country? 36
- (A) U.S.A.
- (B) Canada
- (C) Venezuela
- (D) New Zealand
Answer: (D) New Zealand
37. Which is the deepest ocean? 37
- (A) Pacific Ocean
- (B) Atlantic Ocean
- (C) Indian Ocean
- (D) Arctic Ocean
Answer: (A) Pacific Ocean
38. Which is the largest producer of diamond? 38
- (A) South Africa
- (B) Australia
- (C) China
- (D) Russia
Answer: (D) Russia (By volume).
39. India shares longest boundary with which country? 39
- (A) Pakistan
- (B) Nepal
- (C) Bhutan
- (D) Bangladesh
Answer: (D) Bangladesh
40. Which is oldest mountain range in India? 40
- (A) Aravali range
- (B) Himalayan range
- (C) Satpura range
- (D) Vindhyan range
Answer: (A) Aravali range
41. Digboi oil refinery is located in which state? 41
- (A) Gujarat
- (B) Tamil Nadu
- (C) Bihar
- (D) Assam
Answer: (D) Assam
Polity & Economy
42. Which schedule of Indian Constitution deals with municipalities? 42
- (A) Sixth
- (B) Ninth
- (C) Eleventh
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (It is the Twelfth Schedule).
43. What is the meaning of the writ ‘Mandamus’? 43
- (A) What is your authority
- (B) We command
- (C) To be certified
- (D) To have a body
Answer: (B) We command
44. Who is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha? 44
- (A) President
- (B) Vice-President
- (C) Prime Minister
- (D) None of these
Answer: (B) Vice-President
45. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been implemented from: 45
- (A) July 1, 2017
- (B) November 1, 2017
- (C) May 1, 2018
- (D) August 1, 2018
Answer: (A) July 1, 2017
46. Unit Trust of India was set-up in which year? 46
- (A) 1962
- (B) 1963
- (C) 1964
- (D) 1965
Answer: (C) 1964
General Science & English
47. Polio is caused by which of the following? 47
- (A) Virus
- (B) Bacteria
- (C) Fungi
- (D) Protozoa
Answer: (A) Virus
48. Antonym of ‘Succumb’ is: 48
- (A) Curb
- (B) Resist
- (C) Injure
- (D) Shoot
Answer: (B) Resist
49. Hearing of his mother’s illness, he at once started ____ Kanpur. 49
- (A) to
- (B) towards
- (C) for
- (D) upto
Answer: (C) for
50. Meaning of the idiom/phrase ‘A hornet’s nest’ is: 50
- (A) a comfortable position
- (B) an unpleasant situation
- (C) among thorns
- (D) a dilemma
Answer: (B) an unpleasant situation
Q51. One word substitution for ‘A pioneer of a reform movement’ is:
- (A) Renegade
- (B) Apostle
- (C) Apotheosis
- (D) Apothecary
Answer: (B) Apostle (Often used in the context of a pioneering advocate for a cause).
Q52. ‘तिरस्कार’ का संधि विच्छेद है:
- (A) तिः + कार
- (B) तिर + कार
- (C) तिरः + कार
- (D) तिरस् + कार
Answer: (A) तिः + कार (विसर्ग संधि).
Q53. ‘देवासुर’ में समास है:
- (A) तत्पुरुष
- (B) अव्ययीभाव
- (C) बहुव्रीहि
- (D) द्वन्द्व
Answer: (D) द्वन्द्व (देव और असुर).
Q54. ‘चीता’ का पर्यायवाची है:
- (A) तरक्ष
- (B) गर्दभ
- (C) चित्रकाम
- (D) चित्रक
Answer: (D) चित्रक
Q55. ‘अस्ति-नस्ति में पड़ना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है:
- (A) दुविधा में पड़ना
- (B) मन में बसना
- (C) स्वाभाविक शत्रुता
- (D) विपरीत दशा में पड़ना
Answer: (A) दुविधा में पड़ना

















Section: Physics
Q96. Pressure gradient has the same dimensions as that of:
- (A) energy gradient
- (B) velocity gradient
- (C) potential gradient
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (Pressure gradient is Force/Volume).
Q97. Two bodies are thrown up with initial velocities in the ratio of 2 : 5. The ratio of the maximum heights reached by them is:
- (A) 1 : 3
- (B) 2 : 7
- (C) 3 : 8
- (D) 4 : 25
Answer: (D) 4 : 25 (Height $\propto u^2$).
Q98. A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity after penetrating a plank. How many planks are required to stop the bullet?
- (A) 9
- (B) 12
- (C) 15
- (D) 18
Answer: (B) 12 (Calculated value is approx 11; 12 is the safe minimum from options).
Q99. The ceiling of a hall is 25 m. What is the maximum distance at which a ball can be thrown inside the hall?
- (A) 50 m
- (B) 100 m
- (C) 150 m
- (D) 200 m
Answer: (B) 100 m (Relation $R_{max} = 4H$ for optimal angle $45^{\circ}$).
Q100. Two forces of 12 N and 8 N act upon a body. The resultant force on the body has a maximum value of:
- (A) 8 N
- (B) 12 N
- (C) 16 N
- (D) 20 N
Answer: (D) 20 N
Q101. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their linear momenta is:
- (A) 1 : 1
- (B) 1 : 2
- (C) 4 : 1
- (D) 1 : 4
Answer: (B) 1 : 2
Q102. Physical independence of force is a consequence of:
- (A) First law of motion
- (B) Second law of motion
- (C) Third law of motion
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) First law of motion
Q103. A motorcyclist double his velocity when he is having a turn. The force exerted outwardly will be:
- (A) half
- (B) double
- (C) 4 times
- (D) None of these
Answer: (C) 4 times ($F \propto v^2$).
Q104. When kinetic energy of the body is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body is increased by:
- (A) 100%
- (B) 200%
- (C) 300%
- (D) 600%
Answer: (A) 100%
Q105. An elevator is run by the cables at constant speed. The total work done by the elevator is:
- (A) zero
- (B) negative
- (C) positive
- (D) positive or negative depending on the direction of motion
Answer: (A) zero (Net work done on the system moving at constant speed is zero).
Q106. A disc is rotating with angular speed $\omega$. If a child sits on it, what is conserved?
- (A) Kinetic energy
- (B) Potential energy
- (C) Linear momentum
- (D) Angular momentum
Answer: (D) Angular momentum
Q107. To move a body in a circle, which of the following forces is needed?
- (A) Centripetal
- (B) Centrifugal
- (C) Gravitational
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) Centripetal
Q108. Which of the following interactions is the weakest?
- (A) Gravitational
- (B) Electromagnetic
- (C) Electrostatic
- (D) Nuclear
Answer: (A) Gravitational
Q109. The colour of star indicates its:
- (A) size
- (B) velocity
- (C) temperature
- (D) None of these
Answer: (C) temperature
Q110. A lift is ascending with g/3 acceleration. What will be the time period of a simple pendulum suspended from its ceiling if its period in stationary lift is T?
- (A) T/4
- (B) T/2
- (C) T
- (D) $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}T$
Answer: (D) $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}T$
Q111. A jar has a mixture of $H_2$ and $O_2$ gas in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of mean kinetic energy (K.E.) of $H_2$ and $O_2$ molecules is:
- (A) 1 : 1
- (B) 1 : 2
- (C) 1 : 4
- (D) 1 : 5
Answer: (A) 1 : 1 (Temperature dependent).
Q112. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored per unit volume of the wire is:
- (A) Y/S
- (B) $Y^2/S$
- (C) $Y/S^2$
- (D) $S^2/2Y$
Answer: (D) $S^2/2Y$
Q114. Work done against friction is:
- (A) an irreversible process
- (B) adiabatic process
- (C) isothermal process
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) an irreversible process
Q115. The coefficient of thermal conductivity depends upon:
- (A) area of the plate
- (B) thickness of the plate
- (C) nature of the metal
- (D) temperature difference
Answer: (C) nature of the metal
Q116. The potential energy of particle executing Simple Harmonic Motion (S.H.M.) with amplitude ‘A’ is maximum when displacement is:
- (A) zero
- (B) $\pm A/4$
- (C) $\pm A/8$
- (D) $\pm A$
Answer: (D) $\pm A$
Q117. Which waves are used in sonography?
- (A) Sound waves
- (B) Micro waves
- (C) Infrared waves
- (D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these (Specifically, Ultrasonic waves. If forced to choose a broad category, (A) is related, but (D) is often the key when Ultrasonic is not listed).
Q118. Unit of Stefan’s constant is:
- (A) $watt/m^2 K^4$
- (B) $watt/m^2 K$
- (C) $watt-m^2 K^4$
- (D) $watt-m^2/K^4$
Answer: (A) $watt/m^2 K^4$
Q119. A semiconductor has an electron concentration of $8\times10^{13}$ per $m^3$ and hole concentration of $5.5\times10^{12}$ per $m^3$. The semiconductor is:
- (A) n-type
- (B) p-type
- (C) intrinsic semiconductor
- (D) p-n junction
Answer: (A) n-type (Electrons > Holes).
Q120. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not depend on:
- (A) shape of the loop
- (B) area of the loop
- (C) number of turns in the loop
- (D) strength of the magnetic field
Answer: (A) shape of the loop (Depends on Area, not shape).
Q121. Minimum energy required to take out the only one electron from ground state of $He^+$ is:
- (A) 6.8 eV
- (B) 13.6 eV
- (C) 27.2 eV
- (D) 54.8 eV
Answer: (D) 54.8 eV
Solution: Ionization energy $E \propto Z^2$. For $He^+$, $Z=2$. $E = 13.6 \times 2^2 = 54.4 eV$ (Option D is the closest/intended answer).
Q122. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of:
- (A) $30^{\circ}$
- (B) $60^{\circ}$
- (C) $90^{\circ}$
- (D) $120^{\circ}$
Answer: (C) $90^{\circ}$
Solution: Number of images $n = (360/\theta) – 1$. $3 = (360/90) – 1$.
Q123. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature T is proportional to:
- (A) $1/T$
- (B) $1/T^2$
- (C) T
- (D) $T^2$
Answer: (A) $1/T$
Q124. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric field experiences:
- (A) both, a torque and a net force
- (B) only a force but no torque
- (C) only a torque but no net force
- (D) no torque and no net force
Answer: (A) both, a torque and a net force
Q125. The angle between electric dipole moment and the electric field strength due to it on the axial line is:
- (A) $0^{\circ}$
- (B) $45^{\circ}$
- (C) $90^{\circ}$
- (D) $180^{\circ}$
Answer: (A) $0^{\circ}$
Q126. E.M.F. of cell depends upon:
- (A) internal resistance
- (B) external resistance
- (C) electrolyte and the electrodes of the cell
- (D) None of these
Answer: (C) electrolyte and the electrodes of the cell
Q127. If the electric current in a lamp decreases by 5%, then the power output decreases by:
- (A) 5%
- (B) 10%
- (C) 20%
- (D) 40%
Answer: (B) 10%
Solution: $P \propto I^2$. Approx change = $2 \times (\%\text{ change in } I) = 2 \times 5 = 10\%$.
Q128. The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating in a magnetic field of one Tesla is:
- (A) 28 GHz
- (B) 56 GHz
- (C) 84 GHz
- (D) 112 GHz
Answer: (A) 28 GHz
Solution: $f = qB/2\pi m \approx 28 \times 10^9 \text{ Hz}$.
Q129. Susceptibility is positive but smaller for:
- (A) ferromagnetics
- (B) diamagnetics
- (C) paramagnetics
- (D) non-magnetic substances
Answer: (C) paramagnetics
Q130. Self-inductance of a straight conductor is:
- (A) zero
- (B) infinity
- (C) very large
- (D) very small
Answer: (A) zero (Ideally considered zero in standard MCQs as it creates no flux linkage with itself compared to a coil).
Q131. The idea of displacement [current] was given by:
- (A) Max Planck
- (B) Huygen
- (C) Hertz
- (D) Maxwell
Answer: (D) Maxwell
Q132. A $60^{\circ}$ prism has refractive index $\sqrt{2}$. What is the angle of minimum deviation?
- (A) $30^{\circ}$
- (B) $60^{\circ}$
- (C) $90^{\circ}$
- (D) $180^{\circ}$
Answer: (A) $30^{\circ}$
Q133. The ratio of the specific charge of a proton to that of an $\alpha$-particle is:
- (A) 1 : 1
- (B) 2 : 1
- (C) 1 : 3
- (D) 4 : 1
Answer: (B) 2 : 1
Q134. Which of the following particle is unstable?
- (A) Proton
- (B) Neutron
- (C) Electron
- (D) Alpha particle
Answer: (B) Neutron (A free neutron decays with a half-life of approx 10-15 mins).
Q135. The process of superimposing signal frequency on a carrier wave is:
- (A) Transmission
- (B) Reception
- (C) Modulation
- (D) Detection
Answer: (C) Modulation
Section: Chemistry
Q136. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to:
- (A) $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ molecules of oxygen
- (B) $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ atoms of oxygen
- (C) 16 g of oxygen
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ molecules of oxygen
Q137. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
- (A) $Mg^{2+}$
- (B) $Ti^{3+}$
- (C) $V^{3+}$
- (D) $Fe^{2+}$
Answer: (D) $Fe^{2+}$ (Has 4 unpaired electrons in 3d orbital).
Q138. The electronegativity of C, N, Si and P are in the order of:
- (A) $Si < P < C < N$
- (B) $Si < P < N < C$
- (C) $P < Si < N < C$
- (D) $P < Si < C < N$
Answer: (A) $Si < P < C < N$
Q139. Which of the following substances has dipole moment more than zero?
- (A) Water
- (B) Nitrogen
- (C) Methane
- (D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: (A) Water (It is a polar molecule).
Q140. Which set of conditions represent the easiest way to cool a gas?
- (A) Low temperature and low pressure
- (B) Low temperature and high pressure
- (C) High temperature and low pressure
- (D) High temperature and high pressure
Answer: (B) Low temperature and high pressure (Conditions for liquefaction/significant intermolecular interaction).
Q141. Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction at constant temperature and pressure is called:
- (A) Free energy
- (B) Entropy
- (C) Enthalpy
- (D) Internal energy
Answer: (C) Enthalpy
Q142. The concentration of hydrogen in a sample of soft drink is $3.8 \times 10^{-3}$ M. The pH of the solution is:
- (A) 2.42
- (B) 2.84
- (C) 3.36
- (D) 4.24
Answer: (A) 2.42
Q143. In the reaction: $2Ag + 2H_2SO_4 \rightarrow Ag_2SO_4 + 2H_2O + SO_2$, Sulphuric acid acts as:
- (A) catalyst
- (B) oxidizing agent
- (C) reducing agent
- (D) acid as well as oxidant
Answer: (B) oxidizing agent (S reduces from +6 to +4).
Q144. Which of the following compounds is used for water softening?
- (A) $Na_2HPO_4$
- (B) $Na_2P_6O_{18}$
- (C) $Na_3PO_4$
- (D) $Ca_3(PO_4)_2$
Answer: (B) $Na_2P_6O_{18}$ (Note: The standard formula for Calgon is $(NaPO_3)_6$ or $Na_6P_6O_{18}$. Option B is the intended reference to Polyphosphates/Calgon).
Q145. The formula of soda ash is:
- (A) $Na_2CO_3$
- (B) $Na_2CO_3 \cdot H_2O$
- (C) $Na_2CO_3 \cdot 2H_2O$
- (D) $Na_2CO_3 \cdot 10H_2O$
Answer: (A) $Na_2CO_3$ (Anhydrous sodium carbonate).
Q146. Which is the anhydride of nitrous acid?
- (A) $NO$
- (B) $N_2O_4$
- (C) $N_2O_3$
- (D) $N_2O$
Answer: (C) $N_2O_3$
Q147. Which belongs to alkyne series?
- (A) $C_{16}H_{32}$
- (B) $C_9H_{16}$
- (C) $C_{10}H_{22}$
- (D) $C_7H_{14}$
Answer: (B) $C_9H_{16}$ (Follows formula $C_nH_{2n-2}$).
Q148. The highest boiling point is expected for:
- (A) iso-butane
- (B) n-butane
- (C) n-octane
- (D) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane
Answer: (C) n-octane (Highest molecular mass and surface area).
Q149. BOD is a measure of:
- (A) Organic pollutant in water
- (B) Inorganic pollutant in water
- (C) Particle matter in water
- (D) None of these
Answer: (A) Organic pollutant in water
Q150. Which is also known as dislocation defect?
- (A) Simple interstitial defect
- (B) Non-stoichiometric defect
- (C) Schottky defect
- (D) Frenkel defect
Answer: (D) Frenkel defect
Q151. 2.5 litres of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with 3.0 litres of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The molarity of the resulting solution is:
- (A) 0.73 M
- (B) 0.82 M
- (C) 1.06 M
- (D) 1.12 M
Answer: (A) 0.73 M
Q152. The conductivity of 0.01 M NaCl solution is 0.00147 ohm$^{-1}$ cm$^{-1}$. What happens to the conductivity if extra 100 ml is added to the above solution?
- (A) Increases
- (B) Decreases
- (C) Remains same
- (D) First increases and then decreases
Answer: (B) Decreases (Conductivity per unit volume decreases upon dilution).
Q153. The rate of a chemical reaction becomes double for every $10^{\circ}$ rise in temperature. If the temperature is raised by $50^{\circ}C$, the rate of reaction increases by about:
- (A) 32 times
- (B) 44 times
- (C) 64 times
- (D) 112 times
Answer: (A) 32 times ($2^5 = 32$).
Q154. The catalyst used for preparing Grignard reagent is:
- (A) Activated charcoal
- (B) Iron powder
- (C) Iodine powder
- (D) Manganese dioxide
Answer: (C) Iodine powder
Q155. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called:
- (A) Roasting
- (B) Calcination
- (C) Dressing
- (D) Smelting
Answer: (B) Calcination
Q156. The oxidation state of phosphorous in Cyclometaphosphoric acid is:
- (A) +2
- (B) +3
- (C) +4
- (D) +5
Answer: (D) +5
Q157. Which of the following is not known?
- (A) $CuF_2$
- (B) $CuCl_2$
- (C) $CuI_2$
- (D) $CuBr_2$
Answer: (C) $CuI_2$ (It is unstable and decomposes).
Q158. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when:
- (A) it is a small molecule
- (B) it has an unshared pair of electrons
- (C) it is a positively charged ion
- (D) None of these
Answer: (B) it has an unshared pair of electrons
Q159. The IUPAC name for $CH_3CH_2CH_2CH(CH=CH_2)CH_2CH_2CH_3$ is:
- (A) 4-ethenylheptane
- (B) 3-n-propylhex-1-ene
- (C) 3-ethenylheptane
- (D) None of these
Answer: (B) 3-n-propylhex-1-ene
Q160. R-Cl + NaI $\rightarrow$ R-I + NaCl. The reaction is:
- (A) Frankland reaction
- (B) Finkelstein reaction
- (C) Fittig reaction
- (D) Wurtz reaction
Answer: (B) Finkelstein reaction
Q161. The reaction which involves dichloro carbene as an electrophile is:
- (A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
- (B) Kolbe’s reaction
- (C) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
- (D) Fittig’s reaction
Answer: (A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Q162. When 2-hydroxybenzoic acid is distilled with zinc dust, it gives:
- (A) Phenol
- (B) Benzoic acid
- (C) Benzaldehyde
- (D) A polymeric product
Answer: (B) Benzoic acid
Q163. Dye test can be used to distinguish between:
- (A) Ethylamine and acetamide
- (B) Ethylamine and aniline
- (C) Urea and acetamide
- (D) Methylamine and ethylamine
Answer: (B) Ethylamine and aniline (Differentiates Aliphatic vs Aromatic amines).
Q164. Which hormone contains iodine?
- (A) Testosterone
- (B) Adrenaline
- (C) Thyroxine
- (D) Insulin
Answer: (C) Thyroxine
Q165. Nylon 6, 6 is not a:
- (A) Condensation polymer
- (B) Polyamide
- (C) Co-polymer
- (D) Homopolymer
Answer: (D) Homopolymer (It is a co-polymer).
Section: Pedagogy (Continued)
Q166. The basic education system was based on the view point that the child:
- (A) is not interested to learn anything without economic motivation.
- (B) can get better education through a meaningful and creative piece of work.
- (C) can get more knowledge by reading books.
- (D) learns all the good things with the co-operation of the people of the society.
Answer: (B) can get better education through a meaningful and creative piece of work.
Q167. In your point of view, education can be meaningful only when:
- (A) it is employment-centred
- (B) it is society-centred
- (C) it is child-centred
- (D) it is subject-centred
Answer: (C) it is child-centred
Q168. ‘Mind mapping’ refers to:
- (A) researching the functioning of the mind
- (B) a technique to enhance comprehension
- (C) drawing the picture of a mind
- (D) a plan of action for an adventure
Answer: (B) a technique to enhance comprehension
Q169. In the project education technique, the work load on the teacher is:
- (A) very high
- (B) comparatively low
- (C) low
- (D) nil
Answer: (A) very high (Teachers act as guides and facilitators which requires significant planning and individual supervision).
Q170. Special education is related to:
- (A) training programme for retarded
- (B) training programme for teachers
- (C) educational programmes for talented students
- (D) educational programmes for disabled
Answer: (D) educational programmes for disabled (Specifically “Divyang” or differently abled children).