HP TET Non medical 2013 answer key

Here are all 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and their answers from the provided “TET (Non-Medical) Solved Question Paper 2012”.

📝 Questions & Answers (1-150)

  1. Himachal Pradesh was made Part -C State on (A) July 1, 1954 (B) Nov. 1, 1956 (C) Nov. 1, 1966 (D) Jan. 25, 1971 Answer: (A) July 1, 1954
  2. First Himachali to lead Olympic Hockey team is (A) Charanjeet Singh (B) Vishwajeet Singh (C) Vikaramjeet Singh (D) Ajeet Singh Answer: (A) Charanjeet Singh
  3. The author of Himachal Past, Present and Future is (A) Mian Govardhan Singh (B) Shanta Kumar. (C) Dev Raj Sharma (D) Thakur Sen Negi Answer: (C) Dev Raj Sharma
  4. “Sugar beet” and Saffron” are produced in the district of (A) Lahaul Spiti (B) Sirmaur (C) Kinnaur (D) Bilaspur Answer: (C) Kinnaur
  5. Surajtal and Chandertal are (A) Rivers (B) Natural lakes (C) Players (D) Artificial lakes Answer: (B) Natural lakes
  6. Kufrijeevan and Kufrijyoti are the varieties of (A) Potatoes (B) Apples (C) Tomatoes (D) Peas Answer: (A) Potatoes
  7. Deotsidh temple is in the district of (A) Bilaspur (B) Hamirpur (C) Kangra (D) Una Answer: (B) Hamirpur
  8. The incorrect match is (A) Holi fair-Sujanpur (B) Nalwari fair-Bilaspur (C) Minjar fair- Rampur (D) Renuka fair-Sirmaur Answer: (C) Minjar fair- Rampur
  9. Study of population trends is called (A) Demography (B) Biography (C) Psychobiology (D) Kalography Answer: (A) Demography
  10. Chipko – Andolan was started in (A) 1966 (B) 1973 (C) 1978 (D) 1981 Answer: (B) 1973
  11. “Bara Shigri” is (A) Bird (B) Mountain peak (C) River (D) Glacier Answer: (D) Glacier
  12. “Sissu” fair is celebrated by (A) Buddhists (B) Hindus (C) Muslims (D) Jains Answer: (A) Buddhists
  13. “Ujagjama” is a traditional folk dance of (A) Kinnaur district (B) Sirmaur district (C) Kullu district (D) Lahaul spiti Answer: (C) Kullu district
  14. Which number is neither a prime number nor a composite number? (A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 5 Answer: (B) 1
  15. The prime numbers between 1 to 100 are (A) 25 (B) 30 (C) 34 (D) 33 Answer: (A) 25
  16. Between two given rational numbers 1/4 3/4 there exists (A) Two rational numbers (B) One rational number (C) No rational number (D) Infinite rational numbers Answer: (D) Infinite rational numbers
  17. By selling an article for 425, Rahul lost 15%. The cost price of article is (A) 500 (B) 480 (C) 600 (D) 300 Answer: (A) 500
  18. The maximum number of common tangents drawn to two intersecting circles is (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4 Answer: (C) 2
  19. Simple interest on a sum of money at the end of 5 years is 4/5 of the sum itself. The rate per annum is (A) 8% (B) 16% (C) 24% (D) 4% Answer: (B) 16%
  20. The HCF of 21 x3y7 and 35x5y5 is (A) 105 x5y7 (B) 7x3y5 (C) 105 x8y12 (D) 7x2y2 Answer: (B) 7x3y5
  21. Two equal sides of a triangle are 5m less thrice the third side. If the perimeter of the triangle is 53m, then the length of each equal side is (A) 19 m (B) 22 m (C) 18 m (D) 10 m Answer: (B) 22 m
  22. Which of the following can be the possible lengths in cm. of a triangle ? (A) 18, 10, 6 (B) 6, 2, 8 (C) 8, 10, 15 (D) 8, 12, 20 Answer: (C) 8, 10, 15
  23. ABC is an isosceles right triangle, right angled at C. Then for it (A) AB2=AC2+BC2 (B) AC2=2AB2 (C) AB2=2AC2 (D) AC2=AB2+BC2 Answer: (C) AB2=2AC2
  24. The centroid of a triangle divides each median in the ratio (A) 2:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 3:1 (D) 1:3 Answer: (A) 2:1
  25. Tow poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 m, then the distance between their tops is (A) 6 m (B) 11 m (C) 12 m (D) 13 m Answer: (D) 13 m
  26. The altitudes drawn on equal sides of an equilateral triangle are in the ratio (A) 1:1:1 (B) 2:1:2 (C) 3:2:1 (D) 1:2:3 Answer: (A) 1:1:1
  27. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50. Then the ratio of two numbers is (A) 2:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 5:1 Answer: (B) 3:1
  28. A man goes 5 m in east and then 12 m in north direction. The magnitude of distance covered from starting point is (A) 17 m (B) 13 m (C) 7 m (D) 20 m Answer: (B) 13 m
  29. 1 Km2 is (A) 1 hectare (B) 10 hectares (C) 100 hectares (D) 1000 hectares Answer: (C) 100 hectares
  30. The altitude of a rhombus whose area is 320m2 and side is 5 m (A) 64 m (B) 16 m (C) 160 m (D) 32 m Answer: (A) 64 m
  31. The area of a square field is 5184 m2. A rectangular field whose length is twice its breadth, has its perimeter equal to the perimeter of a square field. The area of a rectangular field is (A) 4086 m2 (B) 4600 m2 (C) 4608 m2 (D) 4680 m2 Answer: (C) 4608 m2
  32. Which is not a perfect cube ? (A) 4096 (B) -27000 (C) -64/1331 (D) 108 Answer: (D) 108
  33. The volume of a cube whose surface area is 54m2 is (A) 729 m3 (B) 27 m3 (C) 54 m3 (D) 2916 m3 Answer: (B) 27 m3
  34. A train moving at a speed of 75km/hr covers a certain distance in 4.8 hrs. To cover the same distance in 3 hrs., the train should have speed (A) 90 km/hr (B) 120 km/hr (C) 100 km/hr (D) 130 km/hr Answer: (B) 120 km/hr
  35. A flower pot has three red flowers and six yellow flowers. What is the probability of picking a red flower by closing your eyes? (A) 1/3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1/18 Answer: (A) 1/3
  36. Area of a trapezium is (A) 21​ (sum of parallel sides) (distance between them) (B) 2 (base) (height) (C) 21​ (base) (height) (D) (breadth) Answer: (A) 21​ (sum of parallel sides) (distance between them)
  37. The roots of equation 2y3−6y+3=0 are (A) real, unequal and rational (B) real, unequal and irrational (C) real and unequal (D) imaginary Answer: (B) real, unequal and irrational
  38. The difference between maximum and minimum observation in data is (A) class interval (B) frequency (C) cumulative frequency (D) range Answer: (D) range
  39. The mean of ten items is 17 and if each item is increased by 5 then the new mean will be (A) 12 (B) 64 (C) 22 (D) 85 Answer: (C) 22
  40. If a (a−1)=8, then (a−8/a) is (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) -1 Answer: (C) 1
  41. The value of x on simplification x−2∣x∣=−3 is (A) -1 or 3 (B) l’or-3 (C) -1 or -3 (D) 1, 3 Answer: (A) -1 or 3
  42. Which of the following is not an improper fraction? (A) 4/3 (B) 3/2 (C) 5/3 (D) 7/11 Answer: (D) 7/11
  43. If ax=b, by=c, cz=a, then the value of xyz is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1/abc (D) abc Answer: (B) 1
  44. Porter carrying a heavy load places a round piece of cloth on his head just to (A) reduce force on head (B) reduce weight on head (C) reduce pressure on head (D) carry heavy load Answer: (C) reduce pressure on head
  45. The correct decreasing order of forces due to rolling, static and sliding friction is (A) rolling, static, sliding (B) rolling, sliding, static (C) static. sliding, rolling (D) sliding, static, rolling Answer: (C) static. sliding, rolling
  46. The noise becomes physically painful when loudness expressed in a unit of decibel (dB) is (A) 30 dB (B) 70 dB (C) 80 dB (D) 85 dB Answer: (D) 85 dB
  47. The ultrasound equipment works at frequency (A) 20,000 hz (B) < 20,000 hz (C) > 20,000 hz (D) 2000 hz Answer: (C) > 20,000 hz
  48. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Its time period in seconds and frequency in hertz are respectively (A) 10, 1/10 (B) 1/10, 10 (C) 160, 36 (D) 36, 160 Answer: (B) 1/10, 10
  49. Rainbow is a natural phenomenon showing (A) reflection (B) refraction (C) dispersion. (D) diffraction Answer: (C) dispersion.
  50. The distinctive colour of eye is due to (A) pupil (B) retina (C) iris (D) cornea Answer: (C) iris
  51. “Braille” system is the most popular resource for (A) Lame persons (B) Camera men (C) Visually challenged persons (D) Swimmers Answer: (C) Visually challenged persons
  52. The unit of time in MKS system is (A) second (B) minute (C) hour (D) none Answer: (A) second
  53. Great bear, Orion, Leo-major are the names of (A) Stars (B) Constellations (C) Comets (D) Planets Answer: (B) Constellations
  54. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary? (A) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm (B) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm (C) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm (D) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm Answer: (C) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
  55. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of (A) pupil (B) retina (C) ciliary muscles (D) iris Answer: (C) ciliary muscles
  56. A current of 0.5A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is (A) 50 C (B) 5 C (C) 100 C (D) 300 C Answer: (D) 300 C
  57. The work done to move a charge 2C across two points having a potential difference 2 V is (A) 4 J (B) (6.4)10−19J (C) 1 J (D) Zero Answer: (A) 4 J
  58. Which is an alloy of copper and nickel? (A) Constantan (B) Manganin (C) Nichrome (D) None of these Answer: (A) Constantan
  59. The coil of an electric toaster is made up of (A) Tungsten (B) Copper (C) Alloys (D) None of these Answer: (C) Alloys
  60. 100 J of heat are produced each second in a 4 Ω resistance. The potential difference across the resistor is (A) 25 V (B) 400 V (C) 20 V (D) 30 V Answer: (C) 20 V
  61. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50A. The power of bulb is (A) 112 W (B) 110 W (C) 440 W (D) 240 W Answer: (B) 110 W
  62. The device used for producing electric current is called (A) generator (B) galvanometer (C) ammeter (D) motor Answer: (A) generator
  63. If a trolley starts from rest with an acceleration of 2m/s2, the velocity of trolley after 4s would be (A) 2 m/s (B) 8 m/s (C) 4 m/s (D) 6 m/s Answer: (B) 8 m/s
  64. The force acting on mass of 1g due to the gravitational pull on the earth is called 1gwt. One gwt. equals (A) 1 N (B) 9.8 N (C) 980 dyne (D) None of these Answer: (C) 980 dyne
  65. The weight of a body would not be zero (A) at the centre of earth (B) during a free fall (C) in interplanetary space (D) on a frictionless surface Answer: (D) on a frictionless surface
  66. Frictional force cannot be measured in (A) Kgwt (B) Newton (C) dyne (D) Kgm/s Answer: (D) Kgm/s
  67. If the density of a block is 981 kg/m3 in water it shall (A) sink (B) float (C) float completely immersed in water (D) none of the above Answer: (B) float
  68. The momentum of a body of mass 100g having a K.E. of 20J is (A) 2 kgm/s (B) 1/2 kgm/s (C) 2 gcm/s (D) none of these Answer: (A) 2 kgm/s
  69. Which of the following substances has greatest specific heat? (A) Iron (B) Water (C) Copper (D) Mercury Answer: (B) Water
  70. The frequency of sound waves can be expressed in (A) hz (B) cycles/second (C) l/s (D) all the above Answer: (D) all the above
  71. An echo will be heard if minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle is (A) 1 m (B) 10 m (C) 17 m (D) 19 m Answer: (C) 17 m
  72. Shaving mirrors are (A) convex (B) concave (C) plane (D) none of these Answer: (B) concave
  73. If the speed of a car becomes 3 times, then the kinetic energy becomes (A) 3 times (B) 6 times (C) 9 times (D) 12 times Answer: (C) 9 times
  74. Cellulose is a polymer of (A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Both A and B (D) Galactose Answer: (A) Glucose
  75. The non stick articles are coated with (A) PVC (B) Melamine (C) Pheno-fomaldehyde resin (D) Teflone Answer: (D) Teflone
  76. Plaster of Paris is (A) CaSO4​.H2​O (B) CaSO4​.1/2H2​O (C) CaSO4​ (D) CaSO4​.2H2​O Answer: (B) CaSO4​.1/2H2​O
  77. King of chemicals is (A) CH3​COOH (B) HNO3​ (C) H2​SO4​ (D) HCl Answer: (C) H2​SO4​
  78. Which of the following is not a strong acid ? (A) Phosphoric acid (B) Carbonic acid (C) Hydrochloric acid (D) Nitric acid Answer: (B) Carbonic acid
  79. Baking Soda is (A) NaHCO3​ (B) Na2​CO3​ (C) NaOH (D) Na2​SO3​ Answer: (A) NaHCO3​
  80. Antacids contain (A) Strong acids (B) Strong bases (C) Mild acids (D) Mild bases Answer: (D) Mild bases
  81. Metals are said to be sonorous because they are (A) Lustrous (B) Malleable (C) Good conductors of heat (D) Produce ringing tones Answer: (D) Produce ringing tones
  82. The metal which is liquid at room temperature is (A) K (B) Rb (C) Hg (D) Na Answer: (C) Hg
  83. Acids turn (A) Red litmus blue (B) Blue litmus red (C) Have no effect on the color (D) None of these Answer: (B) Blue litmus red
  84. Sodium metal is stored in (A) Mustard oil (B) Kerosene oil (C) Castor oil (D) Water Answer: (B) Kerosene oil
  85. The products of neutralization reactions are (A) Acid and base (B) Salt and water (C) Acid and water (D) Base and water Answer: (B) Salt and water
  86. CNG is (A) Common Natural Gas (B) Common Nitrogen Gas (C) Compressed Natural Gas (D) Carbonated Natural Gas Answer: (C) Compressed Natural Gas
  87. A lustrous non-metal is (A) Iodine (B) Oxygen (C) Nitrogen, (D) Sulphur Answer: (A) Iodine
  88. Petroleum product used for repelling moths and insects is (A) Coaltar (B) Bitumen (C) Naphthalene (D) Anthracin Answer: (C) Naphthalene
  89. The central metal atom present in chlorophyll… (A) Fe (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Mn Answer: (B) Mg
  90. Which is not a green house gas? (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Nitrogen Answer: (D) Nitrogen
  91. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is (A) CaOCl2​ (B) CaO2​Cl2​ (C) CaO2​Cl (D) CaCl2​+O2​ Answer: (A) CaOCl2​
  92. When bitten by an ant the sting causes irritation due to the presence of (A) A base in the sting (B) Formic acid (C) Poisonous chemicals (D) Both (A) and (B) above Answer: (B) Formic acid
  93. The atomic number of an element is determined by (A) The number of electrons in an atom (B) The number of neutrons in an atom (C) The valency of element (D) The number of protons in an atom Answer: (D) The number of protons in an atom
  94. Isotopes differ in (A) Number of electrons (B) Number of protons (C) Number of neutrons (D) Chemical reactivity Answer: (C) Number of neutrons
  95. The elements with highest electron affinity in Periodic Table is (A) Iodine (B) Chlorine (C) Fluorine (D) Oxygen Answer: (B) Chlorine
  96. The elements of group sixteen are also called (A) Noble gases (B) Chalcogens (C) Halogens (D) Alkaline earth metals Answer: (B) Chalcogens
  97. Which of the following is a non-polar molecule? (A) NH3​ (B) HCl (C) CCl4​ (D) H₂O Answer: (C) CCl4​
  98. An ionic bond is formed when (A) The combining atoms gain electrons (B) The combining atoms lose electrons (C) A metallic atom reacts with non- metallic elements (D) Two metallic elements react Answer: (C) A metallic atom reacts with non- metallic elements
  99. Which amongst the follwoing contain double bond? (A) C2​H2​ (B) C2​H6​ (C) C2​H4​ (D) C3​H8​ Answer: (C) C2​H4​
  100. The valency of phosphate ion is (A) -1 (B) -2 (C) +3 (D) -3 Answer: (D) -3
  101. The main constituent of LPG is (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Propane (D) Butane Answer: (D) Butane
  102. An amalgam of metal has which other element? (A) C (B) Ag (C) Mg (D) Hg Answer: (D) Hg
  103. The process of protecting iron by coating with Zinc is called (A) Smelting (B) Galvanisation (C) Rusting (D) Corrosion Answer: (B) Galvanisation
  104. A child can think logically about abstract prepositions and test hypothesis systematically.. : This is the characteristic given by Piaget for stage (A) Pre-operational (B) Concrete operational (C) Formal operational (D) None of these Answer: (C) Formal operational
  105. Intelligence and creativity are (A) Positively related (B) Negatively related (C) Not related with each other (D) None of these Answer: (A) Positively related
  106. Who propounded the theory of multiple intelligence? (A) Howard Gardner (B) Charles Spearman (C) Louis L. Thurstone (D) None of these Answer: (A) Howard Gardner
  107. Child development is marked by interrelated processes. Which one is not one of them? (A) Differentiation (B) Integration (C) Motivation (D) Learning Answer: (C) Motivation
  108. Which of the following statements about teaching is true ? (A) Teaching is a pre-requisite of learning (B) Teaching facilitate learning (C) Teaching restricts initiative of learners (D) Teaching is necessary for good learning Answer: (B) Teaching facilitate learning
  109. Children from the underprivileged sections of the society can benefit more if they are (A) provided with training for self employment (B) exempted from Home work and class test (C) provided with richer learning environment in school (D) given simpler learning tasks Answer: (C) provided with richer learning environment in school
  110. To address the diversity in academic achievement an effective teaching method can be (A) Dictating notes (B) Cooperative teaching (C) Lecturing (D) Giving tests Answer: (B) Cooperative teaching
  111. Which of the following statements about the role of a teacher is correct? (A) Teacher should be a critic only (B) Teacher should favour good students (C) Teacher should have a friendly attitude towards students (D) Teacher should maintain a distance from students Answer: (C) Teacher should have a friendly attitude towards students
  112. Which age is called the adolescent age of a child (A) From 3 to 12 years (B) From 13 to 19 years (C) From 1 to 3 years (D) From 20 to 25 years Answer: (B) From 13 to 19 years
  113. What is meant by sequential development? (A) Development that follows succession (B) Development that is irregular (C) Mental development of child (D) Rapid development Answer: (A) Development that follows succession
  114. Why do children differ in physique, character, habits, attitudes and family traits? (A) Due to parents (B) Due to nourishment (C) Due to heredity and environment (D) Due to malnutrition Answer: (C) Due to heredity and environment
  115. What is meant by social environment ? (A) Parents and members of family (B) Relatives, friends and neighbour (C) Teachers and society (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above
  116. What social behaviour is not observed in a child during childhood? (A) Adjustment (B) Attraction towards opposite sex (C) Influence of peers (D) Group loyalty Answer: (B) Attraction towards opposite sex
  117. What is meant by Piaget’s idea of assimilation? (A) The process by which a person takes material into his mind from the environment. (B) The process of acquiring knowledge through understanding (C) The processof acquiring knowledge at mature stage (D) The process of learning through imitation Answer: (A) The process by which a person takes material into his mind from the environment.
  118. Who propounded the theory of trial and error? (A) Adam (B) Woodworth (C) Ross (D) Thorndike Answer: (D) Thorndike
  119. A student wants to share his personal problem and asks for permission to call on you at your residence. What should be your response ? (A) Avoid giving time (B) Gives an appointment readily (C) Tell him that you do not encourage students to visit at the residence (D) Ignore the child Answer: (B) Gives an appointment readily
  120. If you know that the father of a student has been tested HIV positive, what will you do? (A) Disclose the information to the class (B) Make the child sit separately (C) Ask the parents to withdraw the child (D) Let him continue with the studies like others Answer: (D) Let him continue with the studies like others
  121. What can be the reason of stammering? (A) Economic and social (B) Inherited or acquired (C) Physiological or psychological (D) Parent or teacher Answer: (C) Physiological or psychological
  122. What are the two types of assessments which have been referred under CCE ? (A) Scholastic and co-scholastic (B) Formative and summative (C) Regular and irregular (D) None of these Answer: (B) Formative and summative
  123. What is the periodicity of formative assessmet? (A) Four times in a year (B) Half yearly (C) Monthly (D) Yearly Answer: (A) Four times in a year
  124. Summative assessment totals to weightage (A) 60% (B) 50% (C) 40% (D) 30% Answer: (A) 60%
  125. Formative assessment is carried out (A) During a course of instruction (B) At the end of a course of learning (C) At the beginning of a course of learning (D) None of these Answer: (A) During a course of instruction
  126. Multiple choice questions, short answer type questions, long answer type questions are the tools used for (A) Formative (B) Summative (C) Both formative and summative (D) Regular Answer: (B) Summative
  127. Which of the following may damage a low achieving students psychologically? (A) Making children maintain record of class test marks. (B) Discussing the marks of individual student in the class (C) Discussing the correct answers in the class (D) Making children correct their own note books Answer: (B) Discussing the marks of individual student in the class
  128. How many types of intelligence were suggested by Howard Gardner ? (A) Five (B) Seven (C) Six (D) Eight Answer: (B) Seven
  129. What is the main feature of Montessori method? (A) Swings and Plays (B) Nursery Rhymes (C) Some apparatus is designed for children to play with (D) Story telling Answer: (C) Some apparatus is designed for children to play with
  130. What is the sensori-motor stage of cognitive development according to Piaget? (A) Birth to 2 years (B) 2 to 7 years (C) 7 to 11 years (D) 11 years and above Answer: (A) Birth to 2 years
  131. While giving expression to one’s thoughts, what does come first in mind (A) Thought (B) Body action (C) Language (D) Emotions Answer: (A) Thought
  132. What are the fields covered in the co-scholastic evaluation? (A) Human values (B) Social and Physical development (C) Health and Cleanliness (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above
  133. … are responsible for the development of the traits in the individuals (A) Gametes (B) Genes (C) Chromosomes (D) All of the above Answer: (B) Genes
  134. Which is not the member of UNO? (A) Sri Lanka (B) Bangladesh (C) Afghanistan (D) Taiwan Answer: (D) Taiwan
  135. The earliest paper money was the invention of (A) Indians (B) Parsis (C) Chinese (D) Americans Answer: (C) Chinese
  136. Bantus, Finns and Lapps are the names of (A) Islands (B) Rivers (C) Countries (D) Tribes Answer: (D) Tribes
  137. Real name of “Santa Clause” is (A) St. Joseph (B) St. George (C) St. Nicholas (D) St. Nixon Answer: (C) St. Nicholas
  138. Which constitutional amendment provide the constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India? (A) 74th (B) 73rd (C) 76th (D) None of these Answer: (B) 73rd
  139. The Constitution of India was adopted by (A) Parliament of India (B) People of India (C) Constituent Assembly (D) Prime Minister of India Answer: (C) Constituent Assembly
  140. The number of members in Lok Sabha should not exceed (A) 550 (B) 560 (C) 510 (D) 545 Answer: (D) 545
  141. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is called by (A) The Prime Minister (B) The President (C) The Speaker (D) The Deputy Speaker Answer: (B) The President
  142. President rule is imposed in a State under (A) Article 356 (B) Article 353 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 359 Answer: (A) Article 356
  143. The right to property is (A) Fundamental right (B) Legal right (C) Political right. (D) Human right Answer: (B) Legal right
  144. The Election Commission is an (A) Elected body (B) Appointed body (C) Independent body (D) All of the above Answer: (C) Independent body
  145. The Bhartiya Janta Party came into being on (A) April 6, 1980 (B) April 16, 1980 (C) April 26, 1980 (D) April 30, 1980 Answer: (A) April 6, 1980
  146. Where is the headquarters of WTO ? (A) New Youk (B) Geneva (C) Tokyo (D) Vienna Answer: (B) Geneva
  147. When did terrorists attack the India Parliament? (A) Dec. 13, 2000 (B) Dec. 13, 2002 (C) Dec. 13, 2001 (D) Dec. 13, 2003 Answer: (C) Dec. 13, 2001
  148. The.Security Council of the UNO has (A) 192 members (B) 15 members (C) 100 members (D) 10 members Answer: (B) 15 members
  149. The smallest district of Himachal Pardesh in terms of area is (A) Bilaspur (B) Una (C) Solan (D) Hamirpur Answer: (D) Hamirpur
  150. Which one is known as the “Mushroom” c of Himachal Pradesh ? (A) Shimla (B) Solan (C) Bilaspur (D) Nahan Answer: (B) Solan
By: vracademPosted on Categories: Uncategorized

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *